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Saturday, 9 June 2012

Short Question Answers – Biotechnology

Q.1. What is genetic engineering? Ans. It is the changes in the genetic material of organism made in laboratories for obtaining desirable effects. Genetc engineering usually utilizes bacterial cells and their pasmids. Genetic engineering produces cells containing foreign genes. These cells are capable of producing new and different proteins.
Q.2. What are the steps o recombinant DNA technology? Give names only.
Ans. This technology has following steps
1. Preparation of Recombination DNA (rDNA)
  • Vector
  • Restriction Enzyme
  • DNA Ligase Enzyme
2. Insertion of DNA into Host Cell
3. Multiplication of Host rDNA
Q.3. What is vector? What is its significance?
Ans. It is the DDNA molecule into which the genne is inserted to construct an rDNA molecule. It acts as a vehicle to transport rDNA into the host cell, which is usually a bacterium. Two common vectors are used in this technique are plasmid or bacteriophage.
Q.4. What are plasmids? What is their use in biotechnology?
Ans. Plasmids are small extra chromosomal circular molecule o DNA found in some bacteria. It can replicate independent of the host chromosome. Plasmids are source of inserting a foreign gene into them. Host cell take up this rDNA as vector and there after bacteria and plasmid reproduce.
Q.5. How a DNA molecule is introduce the foreign gene into the DNA?
Ans. These enzymes are required to cut a source of DNA molecule into small pieces and to cut plasmid to make a gap for foreign gene. These enzymes are naturally found in bacteria. Restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a specific site called sticky ends. The sticky ends of restriction fragments are used in laboratory to join foreign DNA pieces.
Q.6. How cuted DNA molecule is sealed?
Ans. DNA ligase is a key enzyme that seals the restriction fragment with sticky ends of vector.
Q.7. What do you mean by insertion of DNA into the host cell?
Ans. During this technology bacteria are used as host. Bacterial cells take up rDNA when they are treated with calcium chloride to make them more permeable. Some of the bacterial cells will take the desired plasmid DNA from solution.
Q.8. How rDNA molecules are passed into progeny?
Ans. When host cell divides the copies if rDNA molecules are passed into progeny. After a large number of cell divisions a colony of the host cells is produced. Each cell of the colony contains one or more copies of the rDNA molecule.
Q.9. Give some application of biotechnology.
Ans. Application of Genetically Engineered Bacteria
1. In Agriculture – In agriculture, these bacteria promote the health of plant in different ways such as to make them resistant against insects fungi and bacteria. Some bacteria living in root of corn are transformed into insect killing toxins.
2. Oil Eating Bacteria – Some bacteria have ability to degrade some chemicals e.g. oil eating bacteria, which were used to clean up the ol spills at beeches.
3. Insulin Production – Now a days insulin is produced by genetically engineered bacteria. Human growth hormone now synthesized by genetically engineered bacteria.
4. Nutra Sweet – Some genetically engineered bacteria are used to produce phenylalanine, an organic compound to make nutra sweetener called nutra sweet.
5. In Minings – Some genetically engineered bacteria are used by miners to extract copper, uranium and gold from low grade sources.
6. Diagnosis of Disease – Biotechnology also contributes in the diagnosis of genetic diseases.
7. Production of Vaccines – Vaccines are produced from bacteria treated with 8 rDNA technology.
8. Protection of Crops – Cotton, corn, potato and soya bean plants have been engineered to be resistant to either insect predators or herbicides.
9. Enhancing Proof Quality – Biotechnology is also helpful in the enhancement in the food quality of crops.
Q.10. What are transgenic plants?
Ans. Those plants which are genetically engineered are called transgenic plants. Some techniques have been developed to produce transgenic plants. The rDNA can be introduced into embryo or must be in cell wall removed cell called protoplast. The only plasmid transgenic plant is Ti-plasmid, transferred by its host agrobacterium to many but all plants.
Q.11. What are the aims and objects of transgenic plants?
Ans. AIMS OF DEVELOPING TRANSGENIC PLANTS
i. To cultivate more nutritious plants. Protein enhanced beans, soya beans, corn and wheat are now developed.
ii. Plants require less fertilizer and are able to fix nitrogen more efficiently.
iii. Plants grow under harsh and unfavorable conditions. A number of transgenic plants have been developed which resist either insects, viruses. The first transgenic fruit approved retarded spoilage. Plants are being engineered to produce fructose instead of dextrose, human harmones clotting factors and antibodies.
Q.12. What are transgenic animals?
Ans. Genetic engineering of animals has begun. Animal cells do not take plasmids but it is possible to micro insect’s foreign gene into the eggs of various animals before they are fertilized. It had been done of the hope that the gene will establish itself and transmitted to all the cells of the developing organism.
Q.13. What is restriction fragment length polymolphism (RFLPS)? What is DNA finger printing? What are their uses?
Ans. DNA patterns among individual are called restriction fragment length polymorphorism (RFLPs). Since RFLPs of each human is unique, which are used as mark of identity, RFLPs is termed as DNA finger printing. For this purpose DNA drum the samples are cut into fragments are separated in the basis of their sizes. DNA fragments are helpful to settled disputes over parentage. It is also used to identify criminals from blood, semen, saliva etc. left at the site of crime.
Q.14. What is genomic library?
Ans. It consists of copy of genetic information of species in a preferred environment. In order to establish genomic library of particular specie its DNA is cut into fragments by help of restriction enzymes and then fragments are inserted into plasmids and bacteriophage and then into the bacteria. Such bacteria cultured for future use.
Q.15. Into how many categories the genetic diseases can be divided and what are their mode of treatment?
Ans. DETECTION AND TREATMENT OF GENETIC DISEASES
Genetic diseases fall into three categories;
i. Chromosomal – In this condition child born with structurally or numerically abnormal chromosome such as down’s syndrome, Turner’s syndrome and Klinefelter’s syndrome.
ii. Unifactorial Defects – These defects are caused by defective gene or pair of genes e.g. huntingtons disease and cystic fibrosis.
iii. Multifactorial Defects – These defects are caused by additive effects of several genes, along with environmental factors e.g. asthma, diabetes mellitus.
a. Hungtinton’s Disease – It is due to autosomal dominant allele on chromosome number 4. Appearance of symptoms is usually delayed until the age of 40-50 years. This disease is characterized by progressive mental deterioration.
b. Cystic Fibrosis – It occurs due to an autosomal recessive allele. It is characterized by a tendency to chromic lung infection an inability to absorb fats and other nutrients from food.
Q.15. What is gene therapy?
Ans. One of the benefits of genetic engineering is to treat genetic diseases in individual. It could be possible to replace defective gene with a normal gene. This could be done with somatic cells or with germ cells.
Q.16. What is sever combined imuno deficiency disease and how it can be treated? Give its sign and symptoms.
Ans. SEVERE COMBINED IMUNO DEFICIENCY DISEASE (SCID)
This disease is characterized by very poor immune system so the victim cannot resist infections like pneumonia, influenza etc. In this condition the cells of the bone marrow cannot produce an enzyme called adenosine deammase which is important for normal immune response. This diseases treated by the help of gene therapy. In this therapy the defective bone marrow cells of the patient are removed and then insert the normal gene for the ADA enzyme into the bone marrow cells and return the cells into bones of the parient. Now the cells of bone marrow produce ADA enzyme and immune system becomes normal.
Q.17. What is aminocentesis and how it works for the diagnose of diseases?
Ans. It is the diagnostic procedure in which a small amount of amniotic fluid is withdrawn from the amniotic sac. The amniotic fluid contains cells and chemicals from the foetus that can be analyzed to detect fetal abnormalities such as Down’s syndrome, heamophilia. Tay sachs disease etc.
Q.18. What are the disadvantages of biotechnology?
Ans. WORRIES ABOUT BIOTECHNOLOGY
i. Creation of Pathogens – The genetic manipulation of microorganism could create hazardous new pathogens which might escape from lab.
ii. Side Effects of Medical Products – There is a potential for harmful side effects of the medical products.
iii. Introduction of New Organisms – There is also a debate on this burning topic that genetically engineered agricultural products because of potential dangers of introducing new organisms into environment.
iv. New Proteins – There is another worry that food produced by recombinant technology will contain new proteins that may cause severe allergies in some people.
v. Resistance in Plants – Genetically engineered crops could become superweed. Plants resistant to herbicides or microbial disease and pest insects could escape into wild and over grow and will become difficult to control.

Short Question Answers – Growth and Development

Q.1. What is the type of hen’s egg? In which form it is released from the ovary? Ans. The egg of hen is polylecithal type, which has large quantity of yolk. It is released from the ovary as primary oocyte with a diameter of about 3cm.
Q.2. What is blastodisc? When the oocyte becomes the secondary oocyte?
Ans. Cytoplasm and nucleus is restricted to small area called blastodisc or germinal disc. After release from ovary, the oocyte undergoes first maturation division to become secondary oocyte.
Q.3. Where fertilization occur in the oviduct and how egg is formed?
Ans. Fertilization is internal which occurs in terminal part of oviduct. The secondary oocyte after fertilization undergoes second maturation division to become mature ovum gathers albumen makes two egg membranes and a porous proteunous calcarious shell. This fertilization ovum is laid in 24 hours after fertilized.
Q.4. What is incubation?
Ans. Cell division in fertilized egg required temperature of 36oC – 38oC either naturally by hen or artificially in meubaton. At this temperature complete development and hatching takes place in 21 days.
Q.5. What is cleavage and what type of cleavage occur in hen’s egg?
Ans. Immediately after fertilization, the egg undergoes a series of mitotic division, called cleavage. Cleavage is restricted to the blastodisc, hence called discoidal cleavage. The first two cleavage planes vertical while the third runs horizontal. The rest of the cleavages are irregular and blastodise transformed into blastoderm.
Q.6. What is morulla?
Ans. Cleavage result in the formation of rounded closely packed mass of blastomeres. This is morulla it consists of disc shaped mass of cells two or more layers in thickness lying closely to the yolk.
Q.7. What is blastula and how it is formed?
Ans. Morulla changes into blastula stage. It contains a fluid filled cavity called blastocoel cavity. It appears when the blastodermal cells split into two layers, the upper of epiblast and the lower layer hypoblast. In between these layers blastocoel appears. The marginal cells of blastoderm lie unseparated from the yolk and from the zone of junction or area opaca, while the central region is termed as area pellucida. The egg is laid at this stage.
Q.8. What is gastrulation?
Ans. Blastula changes into gastrula and the process is called gastrulation. During this process formation, migration and rearrangement of cells occurs in embryo. These cells begin to differentiate into definite layers, the ectoderm, the mesoderm andthe endoderm.
Q.9. How endoderm is formed?
Ans. Some cells of hypoblast of the area pellucida migrates downward and spread over the yolk. This newly formed layer is called endoderm which enclosing yolk and stalk connecting the yolk mass to the embryo.
Q.10. How mesoderm and ectoderm are formed?
Ans. Mesoderm Formation – Cells of epiblast for the middle of blastodisc move downward in the direction or yolk. As a result of the movement of the cell at the blastodisc, a groove the primitive streak is produced. Number of cells of epiblast pass through the primitive streak to the blastocoel to form a new layer of cells called mesoderm. Primitive streak has a swelling at its anterior end called primitive knot or Hessen’s node.
Ectoderm Formation – The remaining layer of epiblast after the formation of mesoderm formed as ectoderm.
Q.11 Describe the mechanism of formation of notochord.
Ans. Notochord Formation and Differentiation of Mesoderm
After the formation of endoderm cell from the region of Hessen’s node push into a form a rod like structure called notochord in the mid line beneath the ectoderm. The mesoderm on each side of the notochord gives rise metamerically arranged somites or epimeres, which later give rise muscles, axial skeleton and connective tissues. Below epimere mesomere is produced which gives rise to kidneys. The rest of the mesoderm is the hypomere. after 24 hours of incubation hypomeres are differentiated into and outer somatic layer and inner splanchnic layer. The space between two layers is called coelom.
Q.12. Define neuralation? What is its mechanism of formation and significance?
Ans. Neurulation – The whole process of formation of central nervous system is called neurulation. Some cells of ectoderm above the notochord divide quickly to form neural plate on the dorsal surface. During the course of cell division the neural plate sinks inside the embryo to form the neural groove. Both the edges of neural groove are called neural folds. Neural folds after fusing together form neural tube. The embryo now called neurula. The neural tube gives rise to nervous system.
Q.13. What is cell differentiation?
Ans. The process in which cells arise from zygote morphologically and physiologically different from each other is called cell differentiation.
The embryo arise from single fertilized ovum, so all the cells of embryo have same number and kind of genes but during gastrulation some genes are activated and some are inactivated due to which cells are differentiated form each other.
Q.14. Describe the mechanism of cell differentiation with the help of experiment.
Ans. Experiment – John Gurdon in his experiment removed the nucleus from the unfertilized egg of frog. Then he obtained nucleus from the intestinal cell of tadpole and implanted into the egg. Surprisingly the transplanted zygote developed into complete from indicating that nucleus of he differentiated cell does not lose any genetic information and remain totiopotent.
Mechanism – During the differentiation process genetic expression is influenced by cytoplasmic chemical composition. During cleavage cytoplasm of ovum is divided into cells containing mRNA, protein and other molecules for the future differentiation of cells into tissues.
Q.15. What is embryonic induction?
Ans. When an embryonic tissue influences upon the other embryonic tissue through transmitting some chemical stimulus the primary organizer, this phenomenon is called embryonic induction.
Q.16. Describe the process of embryonic induction with the help of experiment.
Ans. Experiment – Hans Spemann and Hilde Mangold in 1924 performed an experiment. They cut the presumptive nervous tissue and transplanted into the belly region of another embryo. They found that neural tissue failed to develop into nervous system. In another experiment, they cut away the presumptive notochord tissue and grafted it under the belly ectoderm. Surprisingly, the belly ectoderm developed into neural tissue.
Q.17. What is aging? Give the name of the branch of biology that deals with the study of aging?
Ans. The progressive process of deterioration in the body is called aging. The science of aging is called gerontology.
Q.18. Describe the process of aging and give its main causes.
Ans. In the process of aging the cells starts to breakdown structurally and functionally which lead to structurally changes and ultimately the loss of different functions of body. The exact cause of aging is yet unknown. However there are following interesting lines to think about.
(i) Genetic Origin – Experiment of Leonard Hay flick and paul moor Head, that the cells of the tissues have only a finite number of cell divisions. By the time the tissues or organs is fully grown. For example in the case of nervous system mental activity and memory deteriorate and there are fewer nerve cells in old age.
(ii) Gene Mutation – During the passage of time due to the accumulation of gene mutation the capacity of self repair of DNA during its replication is lost. This results in progressive inadequate functioning of cells that cause the aging.
Q.19. What is regeneration? In which type of animals the potential for regeneration is higher?
Ans. It is the ability of a living organism to reconstruct its lost part of the body. Some animals retain this power after maturity and adulthood while other looses it. It is much more common in invertebrates than in vertebrates. Simpler animals have greater power of regeneration than the higher ones. Sponges have greater power of regeneration. An adult hydra of star-fish if chopped into many parts. Each part can regenerate into complete organism. Among arthropods usually appendages can be regenerated. Salamanders and lizard can regenerate their tails. In birds and mammals the regeneration is mostly limited to the small wounds by the formation of a new tissue called Scar.
Q.20. What is the degree for regeneration?
Ans. The regeneration potential is generally related to the differentiation of cells. Thus greater the differentiation among the cells at the body the lesser will be regeneration.
Q.21. What is abnormal development? Which branch of science deals with study of abnormal development?
Ans. Deviation in the normal structure and functions of an organism occur under unfavourable conditions during the embryological development and are called abnormal development. The study of abnormal development is called Teratology.
Q.22. What are the causes of abnormal development?
Ans. Sometimes due to mutation radiation. Some drugs during the pregnancy, abnormal secretory functions of glands etc. Some kind of structure for biochemical abnormalities, which may be lethal, develop in new individual.
Q.23. Give examples of abnormal development.
Ans. Some abnormal conditions are listed belowl
DISORDERS
1. Microcepahly
2. Cleft Lip and Palate
3. Polydactyl
4. Dextrocardia
5. Sickle Cell Anemia
6. Turner’s Syndrome
7. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
8. Down’s Syndrome
9. Haemophilia
10. Thalassemia
MAJOR SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS
1. Individual with small skull in proportion to the normal body size.
2. Splitr in upper lip and gap in the roof of the mouth.
3. Excessive number of fingers or toes.
4. Heart towards the right side of the chest.
5. Abnormal sickle shaped RBC’s.
6. Female Sexual Defect.
7. Male Sexual Defect.
8. Mental and Physical Retardation
9. Decreased ability or inability of the blood to clot.
10. Fragile RBC’s cause hemolytic anemia.

Short Question Answers – Reproduction

Q.1. What is fission and in which type of animal the fission occur? Ans. Fission is a type of asexual reproduction occurs in circular living organisms. In this reproduction, the organism may be divided into two or more than two parts.
Q.2. How many types of fission are there?
Ans. There are two types of fission.
i. Binary Fission
ii. Multiple Fission
Q.3. What is binary fission?
Ans. In this reproduction can be observe in protozoan and bacteria. first the nucleus divides into daughter nuclei then self membranes splits and form two daughter cell.
Q.4. What is multiple fission?
Ans. It can be observe in parasitic protozoa. The nucleus shows repeated divisions and then cell membrane is formed around each nucleus in this many daughter cell are formed with in the parent cell. When parents cell reptures, so theses daughter cell set free.
Q.5. Define budding. Give examples.
Ans. This reproduction is found in yeasts hydra sponges and other in vertebrates. in this process a small bud appears on the body which gradually enlarged and after separation from the parents body transforms into new individual.
Q.6. What is the name of the asexual reproduction in which the egg cell forms new individual without fertilization?
Ans. It is mode of reproduction in which development of off spring occurs without fertilization and egg forms new individual.
Q.7. In which animals parthenogenesis is an essential part of their life cycle?
Ans. In certain animals the parthenogenesis occurs regularly constantly and naturally in their life cycle. Certain insects have no sexual phase. They depend totally on the parthenogenesis for the self production. The life cycle of certain insects includes two generation the sexual generation and the parthenogenesis generation. Both of which alternate to each other. In such cases diploid eggs produce females and unfertilized egg produce males. E.g. bees, wasps, ticks and mites.
Q.8. What is Cloning?
Ans. It is the modern technique of reproduction. In this procedure, nucleus of ovum is replaced by diploid nucleus taken from the somatic cell. After that ovum is implanted in the uterus of female. Where it develops into an organism, which is exact copy of the parent who donated the nucleus.
Q.9. What are twins and how many types of twins are there?
Ans. Twin are the two children which develop and born together. Twins are of two types.
(i) IDENTICAL TWIN – These twins are of the alike sex because they develop from one zygote hence they are called monozygotic twins. They are same because they share some genes.
(ii) FRATERNAL TWINS – These twins are developing from two separate ova, which are fertilized by two separate sperms hence they are called dizygotic twins.
Q.10. What is gametogenesis?
Ans. The process of formation of gametes is sex organs is called gametogenesis.
Q.11. How many types of gametogenesis are there?
Ans. Gametogenesis is of two types.
(i) SPERMATOGENESIS – It is the formation of sperm in the testes. Germ cell after mitosis produces spermatogonia and then into primary spermatocytes. Each primary spermatocyte in meiosis.
Produces two secondary sermatocytes which in meiosis.
Produce four spermatids, each ultimately develop into sperm.
(ii) OOGENESIS – It is the formation of eva in the ovaries. Germ cell in ovary after mitosis produces oogania and the into primary oocytes. Each primary oocyte in meiosis – I produces a secondary oocyte and a smaller polar body. In meiosis – II secondary oocyte produces an ovum and a polar body. Polar body produces from meiosis I produces two more polar bodies in meiosis. In this way one ovum and three polar bodies are produced.
Q.12. What is the difference between mating and fertilization?
Ans. MATING – Mating is the process in which male and female contribute their ganetes for fertilization.
FERTILIZATION – Fertilization is the process in which sperm and ovum after fusion produce zygote.
Q.13. How many types of fertilization are there?
Ans. There are two types of fertilization.
(i) EXTERNAL FERTILIZATION – When fusion between sperm and ovum occurs outside the body of female is called external fertilization. For example in frog, female eggs in water and male pour sperm on eggs.
(ii) INTERNAL FERTILIZATION – When fusion of male and female gametes occurs inside the body of female is called internal fertilization. It is the characteristics of all terrestrial animals.
Q.14. Give the name of female reproductive organs.
Ans. Female reproductive system consists of following organs
i. Ovaries
ii. Fallopian tubes
iii. Uterus
iv. Vagina
Q.15. What is the shape of the ovaries and where they are located in the abdomen?
Ans. Ovaries are somewhat bean shaped bodies (Length = 4cm, Breadth = 2.5cm, Width = 1.5cm). The ovaries are situated on each side of uterus, near the free end of fallopian tube, hanging by a ligament called Mesovarium.
Q.16. Where the development of ova takes place and how they are formed?
Ans. The surface layer of ovay is Germinal Epithelium, where as interior is a mass of connective tissues called stroma. The ova begin their development in the germinal epithelium even before birth. Ogonia in epithelium divide by mitosis to produce about 2,00,000 primary oocytes. Each oocytes is surrounded by a layer of stroma and forms a primary follicle. The primary follicles remain dormant till puberty.
Q.17. What are fallopian tubes are what are their functions?
Ans. They are also called oviduers. Each fallopian tube is connected with uterus on one side and forms funnel shaped opening around ovary. These tubes have cilia, movement of cilia together with the peristaltie movement of smooth muscles propel the ova towards uterus. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube.
Q.18. What is uterus and what is its function? Describe its histological structure?
Ans. It is pear shaped organ about the size of fist. Uterus has three layers, perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium. Endometrium is lined with, thick and glandular, epithelium which under the influence of hormones thickness and shads in the absence of fertilization. Uterus is the side of development of ambryo till birth. Uterus opens into vagina through a muscular sphinter called cervix.
Q.19. Describe the physiological significance of vagina.
Ans. It is muscle tube about 10cm long leading the cervix to outside of the sperm body. This tube is the passage of sperm into the female reproductive system.
Q.20. What is menstrual cycle?
Ans. The cyclic discharge of blood, mucus and certain other substances from the uterus at an average interval of 28 days is called menstrual cycle. It starts at the age of puberty (12 – 14 years) and ends at the age of (45 – 55 years). The onset of cycle is called menarche while stopping of it is menopause.
Q.21. How many phases are there in menstrual cycle?
Ans. Menstrual cycle consists of following phases
i. Menstruation Phase
ii. Follicular Phase
iii. Ovulation Phase
iv. Luteal Phase
Q.22. What is menstruation phase and when it begins? Describe?
Ans. In the absence of fertilization of ovum with sperm, secretion of progesterone declines because corpus luteum is shrinking. Endometrium cannot persist in the absence of progesterone and endometrium is striped off, discharge of blood, mucus and tissues remains continue for next 4 – 5 days through vagina.
Q.23. What is follicular phase? Which hormone initiates the development of follicle in ovary?
Ans. The phase starts after the completion of the other menstrual cycle. In this phase pituitary gland secrets a hormone, follicles, stimulating soil, hormone (F.S.H) which initiate the development in primary follicles of ovary.
Q.24. What is graffian follicle and what is its function?
Ans. The walls of follicles become thicker and glandular along with the maturation of ovum. The matured follicle is called graffian follicle. These graffian follicle secrets, estrogen which via blood circulation reaches to uterus and bring about rapid cell division in the walls of endometrium and eventually becomes thicker and thicker. This process remains continuous for 10 – 14 days.
Q.25. When follicular is started and what are its main events?
Ans. Follicular phase is the phase starts after the completion of the other menstrual cycle. In this phase pituitary gland secrets a hormone follicles stimulating soil, hormone (F.S.H) which initiate the development in primary follicles of ovary. The walls of follicles become thicker and glandular along with the maturation of ovum. The matured follicle is called graffian follicle. These Graffian follicle secrets, estrogen which via blood circulation reaches to uterus and bring about rapid cell division in the walls of endometrium and eventually it becomes thicker and thicker. This process remains continuous for 10 – 14 days.
Q.26. What is ovulation phase and when it begins?
Ans. Ovulation phase it occurs in the mid of cycle i.e. 14th day of cycle. The increased level of estrogen in blood declines the secretion of follicle stimulating hormones (FSH) and a second hormone named luteinizing hormone secrets from pituitary gland. This hormone helps us rupturing of graffian follicle and ovum sets free from follicle. It is brief phase of cycle.
Q.27. What do you mean by Luteal phase and why it occurs?
Ans. Luteal phase mean while the ruptured graffian follicle repairs itself by filling with yellow adipose tissues, it is called corpus luteum, which begins to secrets progesterone which initiates the development of endometrium and also increase vascularization in endomentrium. In this way uterus is fully prepared for pregnancy.
Q.28. What gonadotropin hormones and how many types of are there?
Ans. Those hormones of pituitary gland which influences female reproductive cycle are collectively called gonadotropin. These hormones are as follow
i. Follicle stimulating hormone
ii. Luteinizing hormone
iii. Luteotropic hormone (Prolactin hormone)
Q.29. What are the endocrinological role of gonadotropic hormones in the control of ovary physiology?
Ans. The endocrinological roles of each gonadotropic hormone are given below.
(a). Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) – This hormone secretes from anterior lobe of pituitary gland. These hormones bring about the development in primary follicles and convert them into graffian follicle.
(b). Luteinizing Hormone – This hormones also secrets from anterior lobe of pituitary gland. This hormone help in rupturing of graffian follicle and formation of corpus luteum.
(c) Luteotropic Hormone – This hormone also secrets from anterior lobe of pituitary gland. This hormone initiates the production of milk from mammary gland.
Q.30. What is the physiological significance of ovary?
Ans. Role of Ovary – Ovary is mainly reproductive organ it has primary follicle which when starts development secretes a hormone called estrogen, which is important for the development of endometrium, after ovulation follicle forms corpus luteum which secretes progesterone which finally prepares endometrium for pregnancy.
Q.31. Why testes are present outside the abdomen between the thigas?
Ans. A pair of testes is presenting in sac of skin called scrotum, which hangs between two thighs it is due to fact that sperm production occurs at low temp.
Q.32. Where spermatogenesis takes place?
Ans. Each testis contains 200 to 300 compartments. In each compartment a mass of coiled semniferous tubule is packed. In these tubules sperm are produced by the process of spermatogenesis. Sperm development takes place in the walls of semniferous tubules and sperm discharge in the lumen of tubule.
Q.33. Which hormone is secreted from the testes and which is its function?
Ans. Testes also produce male sex hormone called testosterone, which produces secondary male sexual characters.
Q.34. Where sperm complete their maturation? Describe the structure in detail.
Ans. EPIDIDYMIS – Each epididymis is coiled tubule about 20 feet long wrapped in a connective tissue and located on the top of each testis. Sperm produces in each testis are transferred to epididymis, where sperm complete their maturation.
Q.35. What is vasa deference and how sperms are transferred to the urethra?
Ans. Vasa Deference – The narrow tube of each epididymis of merges into vas deference units with the ducts of seminal verticals and forms ejaculatory duct which open into urethra. Vasa deference store sperm for short period and transfer sperm to urethra by peristalsis.
Q.36. What is urethra and how sperms are discharged into the vagina?
Ans. Urethra – Both the sperm and urine pass through common tube called urethra. This urethra is present in a muscular penis, which helps in discharge of sperm in vagina of female system.
Q.37. Which gland is responsible for the nourishment and protection of sperms and how it protect the sperms?
Ans. Seminal Vesicles – Two seminal vesicles contribute secretion rich in fructose, which nourishes sperm. Seminal vesicle also secret fibrinogen which partially ‘gels’ the semen and helps in the protection or sperm. Seminal vesicles are also connected with urethra by ejaculatory ducts.
Q.38. What is alternate name of cowper’s gland and what is its significance?
Ans. Cowper’s Gland – These are two glands which are also called bulbouretheral gland. These glands are located below the prostate gland and secrets a lubricating fluid. This fluid has cleaning action and helps in discharging of sperm from urethra.
Q.39. Which organ is responsible for the neutralization acidic medium of vagina and how sperms are free to move towards ovum?
Ans. Prostate Gland – This located at the base of bladder. Its secretes alkaline fluid which neutralizes acidic medium of vagina. This fluid also has profibrinolysin which liquefies the gel of semen and sperm are free to move towards ovum.
Q.40. What is placenta and how it provides nourishment to the developing embryo from the mother body?
Ans. Placenta – It is the connection of tissues of mother and embryo. It is formed in endometrium. It has million of blood vessels of mother embryo which provide medium for the exchange of different materials between mother and embryo such as food, O2, CO2, and wastes. Placenta also secrets progesterone which helps in pregnancy.
Q.41. What is amniotic membrane and how embryo is protected from the physical shocks and injuries
Ans. Amnion – It is an extra embryonic membrane around the embryo of reptiles, birds and mammals, it has a cavity inside called amniotic cavity, which contain amniotic fluid. This fluid protects the embryo from external shocks and also provides watery environment to the embryo.
Q.42. What is lactation? Define.
Ans. Lactation – After the birth of child, Prolactin hormones secrets from pituitary gland which starts milk production from mammary glands. This mechanism is called lactation. This milk contains nutrients and anti bodies, which protects new born baby from disease.
Q.43. What is umbilical cord and what is its function?
Ans. Umblical Cord – It is rope like structure formed by allantois. It connects the embryo to placenta. It contains blood vessels which carry food and O2 from placenta to embryo and CO and other wastes from embryo back to placenta.
Q.44. What is test tube baby and how it is produced?
Ans. Test Tube Babies – This technique is applied on those couples which are failed to produce children. Sometimes sperm and ova are failed to perform fertilization due to some barriers. So in the techniques fertilization between sperm and ovum is performed in vitro. In this procedure sperm is taken from testis pf husband and ovum is taken from the ovary of wife. Sperm and ovum are allowed to fuse together in test tube. After fertilization zygote is implanted in the uterus of wife, where it develops into child.
Q.45. Which bacteria are responsible for the spread of gonorrhea and what are its effects on male and female?
Ans. This disease is caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae. This disease spread due to sexual contacts. In female it infects oviducts and caused blockage of them and from female it is transmitted to her child. In male bacterium cause infection in urinary system and pus formation.
Q.46. What is syphilis and what are its pathological effects?
Ans. This disease is caused by bacterium. Treponema pallidum. This bacterium not only damage reproductive organs but also effects nervous system and skeletal system. This disease can be transferred infected mother to her babies.
Q.47. How blisters are produces around the external genital organs?
Ans. This disease is caused by virus herpes simplex. In this disease painful blisters are produced around external genital organs. This disease is transferred to new born baby.
Q.48. What is AIDS?
Ans. This disease is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). This virus destroys the immune system of the person. Virus is transferred to either partner through sexual contacts and from infected mother to her baby.

Short Question Answers – Co-Ordination and Control

Q.1. What is neuron? Ans. The neurons are functional and structural units of nervous system. These are specialized cells which carry out the transmission of nerve signals.
Q.2. How many parts are there in the neuron?
Ans. A neuron consists of cell body, dendrites and axon.
Cell body has a nucleus, cytoplasm, rich in granules like Nissl Bodies, mitochondria and golgi bodies.
Dendrites are branched extensions of cytoplasm, originate from cell body. These dendrites make synapses with the axon terminals of another neuron and receive nerve signals.
Axon is only one number. Sometimes it is very long in length and termination branches whose ends are swollen called Synapse Cleft.
Q.3. What is the function of sensory neutron?
Ans. Sensory or Afferent Neuron are connected with some organs or receptors and conduct nerve signals to the CNS.
Q.4. What is the function of motor neuron?
Ans. Motor or Efferent Neuron are connected with muscles and conduct nerve signals from CNS to the muscles.
Q.5. Define nerve impulse.
Ans. Travelling of messages in the form of electric current through a neuron is called nerve impulse.
Q.6. What Synapse?
Ans. The region from where the nerve impulse move from one neuron to another neuron is called Synapse.
Q.7. Give the anatomical arrangement of Synapse?
Ans. The synapse consists of three components.
A pre-synaptic membrane (The Axon Terminal)
A narrow space called Synaptic Cleft
Post-synaptic Membrane (Dendrite of other neurons)
Q.8. How a nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another neuron?
Ans. Synaptic Knob of axon terminals containing synaptic vesicles. The synaptic vesicles are filled with neurotransmitter, on the arrival of nerve impulse at axon terminal these neurotransmitters are released in the synaptic cleft and that neurotransmitter bind at the receptors of post synaptic membrane. In this way action potential is generated in post-synaptic membrane.
Q.9. What is reflex action?
Ans. The reflex action is automatic, involuntary and sudden response; occur due to internal or external stimuli. For example knee jerk, blinking of eyes.
Q.10. How many neurons are involved in the reflex arc?
Ans. A reflex involves only two neurons.
1. A Sensory Neuron
2. A Motor Neuron
Q.11. What is reflex arc?
Ans. The arrangement of sensory neurons and motor neurons is called reflex arc.
Q.12. How many types of reflexes are there? Explain.
Ans. There are two types of reflexes.
i. Monosynaptic reflexes: If only one synapse is found in the reflex arc is called Monosynaptic Reflexes. For example, Knee Jerk.
ii. Polysynaptic Reflexes: If reflex arc consists of two or more synapse is called Polysynaptic Reflexes. In this path way two or more inter neuron are found in between sensory and motor neurons.
Q.13. What is polarization and resting membrane potential and what is the distribution of different ions across the neurolemma?
Ans.
i. Cell membrane of neurons has unequal distribution of positive and negative ions inside and outside the membrane.
ii. Sodium ions are in greater concentration outside membrane while chlorine ions and negative charge proteins are in low concentration due to positive charge develops outside membrane.
iii. Potassium ions are in higher concentration on inside the membrane then outside the membrane. Chlorine ions and negative charge proteins are in higher concentration then potassium ions inside the membrane due to which membrane is negatively charged from inside.
This condition is called Polarization and Resting Membrane Potential (RMP). The RMP is about 70mv to 90mv.
Q.14. For which ions the cell membrane of neuron is permeable and how their concentrations are regulated across the cell membrane?
Ans. Cell membrane is permeable for both Na+ and K+ ions and these ions can move freely across the membrane but their concentrations are regulated by Na-K Pumps located in the cell membrane.
Q.15. What is repolarization or action potential and how an when nerve impulse is generated?
Ans. Due to the arrival of any signal, permeability of cell membrane to sodium ions suddenly increases. Sodium ions diffuse inside the membrane, after very short time potassium ions move outside the membrane.
Membrane is now positively charged from inside and negatively charged from outside the membrane due to the shifting of sodium ions inside the membrane. This condition is called Depolarization. It value is +30mv.
When this signal is shifted to another position on neuron, sodium ions move outside and potassium ions move inside by Na-K Pump. Membrane again positively charged from outside and negatively charged from inside. This condition is called Repolarization or Action Potential.
In this way the nerve impulse travels along the whole length of neuron.
Q.16. What is the path for the propagation of nerve impulse?
Ans. Propogation of Nerve Impulse. Action potential develops locally spread along the entire neurolemma is called propagation of nerve impulse.
Q.17. What is the basic structure of thalamus and how it works?
Ans. The thalamus consists of two masses of nerve cells situated within the cerebral hemisphere just below the corpus callosum. Sensory input from skin, visceral organs and sense organs are transmitted to thalamus before redistribution to the cerebrum.
Q.18. Where hypothalamus is located. Which glans is associated with hypothalamus and what is its function?
Ans. Hypothalamus is located below thalamus. Pituitary gland also connects with hypothalamus. Hypothalamus controls body temperature blood pressure hunger thirst and secretion of hormones.
Q.19. Give general features of brain.
Ans. Brain is the main part of central nervous system (CNS). It is 1/5 of the total body weight. It is located in cranial cavity of skill and covered with meninges. Between meninges cerebrospinal fluid is failed.
Q.20. What is the basic structure of cerebrum?
Ans. Cerebrum consists of two cerebral hemispheres which are connected together by corpus collosum. Cerebrum has many infoldings or narrows or gyrl which are separated by sucli or fissures. The outer most surface of cerebrum is called cerebral cortex which is rich in neurons.
Q.21. Give the physiological significance of cerebrum.
Ans. Physiological significance of cerebrum
i. Mental activities involved in memory intelligence, sense of responsibility, thinking reasoning and learning.
ii. Sensory perception including pain, temperature touch, sight, hearing, taste and smell.
iii. Initiation and control of voluntary muscle contraction.
Q.22. Into how many lobes the cerebrum can be divided?
Ans. Cerebrum is divided into following lobes.
i. Frontal lobe: It controls smell and power of speech.
ii. Parietal lobe: It controls pain, pressure, thinking memory and learning.
iii. Temporal lobe: It concentrated with hearing
iv. Occipital lobe: It is concerned with vision
Q.23. From here the medulla oblongata extends and what is its importance?
Ans. Medulla oblongata extends from the pons verollii and continuous with the spinal cord. Some vital centers are located in it..
i. Cardiac center
ii. Respiratory center
iii. Reflex centers of vomiting, coughing, sneezing and swallowing
Q.24. What is spinal cord? Describe its structure?
Ans. Spinal cord is tubular structure which runs poster only with in the neural canal of verteral column. Spinal cord is also covered with meninges. The center of spinal cor is butterfly shape mass of grey matter surrounding it is the white matter in which the axons of neurons are located. from spinal cord spinal nrve arise which connect different parts of body with spinal cord serves as the pathway of nerve impulses from brain to various parts of the body and also control reflex action.
Q.25. What is hormone?
Ans. The hormone is a secretary product of ductless gland which release directly into blood and transported into the body, where it affects the particular target site.
Q.26. How many types of hormone are there on the basis of the chemical nature?
Ans. Types of Hormones on the Basis of Chemical Nature
Hormone are classified into three group on the basis of chemical compostion.
i. Petide Harmone: They consist of short chain amino acids and long chain amino acids. Glucagon, ADH and oxytocin are the example of short chain and insulin and prolactine are the example of long chain amino acids.
ii. Modified Amino Acid Harmones: These hormones consist consist of modified amino acids e.g., Thyroxin, epinephrine.
iii. Steroid Hormone: These hormones are lipid in nature e.g., progesterone, testosterone.
Q.27. What the first model of hormones says about the functions of hormones and to which types of hormone it is related?
Ans. First Model of Hormones Action
This model is related with peptide hormone. According to this model receptor of hormones is linked with an enzyme adenylate cyclase on the innr side of plasma membrane. Bindin of hormone with receptor activates adenylate cyclase, which converts into cyclic adenocine monophosphate (cyclic AMP) in the cytoplasm. This cyclic AMP activates specific enzymes which bring about appropriate response with n the cell.
Q.28. What is the second model of hormones says about the function of hormones and to which types of hormones it is related?
Ans. Second Model of Hormones Action
This model is related with steroid hormones. These hormones directly diffuse through plasma membrane into the cell. In the cytoplasm they find specific receptor which carry them into the nucleus where hormone receptor complex directly activates the appropriate genes. Thus under the instruction of genes, enzymes are synthesized to bring about specific response.
Q.29. How hypothalamus secrets it hormones and where they are stored?
Ans. Hypothalamus is the part of the fore brain. Its neuro-secretory cells produce both releasing hormones and inhibiting hormones. Some of its cells secrete Antidiurertic hormones (ADH) and Oxytocin which are stored in their nerve ending located in posterror lobe of pituitary gland.
Q.30. What is the size of pituitary gland? Where it is situated and into how many lobe sit can be divided?
Ans. Pituitary gland (hypophysis) is small pea size glands hangs from the base of hypothalamus. Pituitary gland consists of following lobes.
i. Anterior lobe
ii. Median lobe
iii. Posterior lobe
Q.31. Which hormones are secreted from the anterior lobe of hypophysis and what are their physiological effects?
Ans. Hormones of Anterior Lobe of Pituitary Gland
This lobe secretes following hormones.
i. Somatotropin – This hormones increases metabolism or many tissues and influences the growth of bones and soft tissues.
ii. Thyroid Stimulating Hormones – This hormone regulates the secretions of thyroid gland.
iii. Follicile Stimulating Hormones - This hormone starts the formation of gametes in gonads.
iv. Adrenocorticotropic Hormones – This hormones controls the functioning of cortex of adrenal gland.
v. Prolactin – It stimulates mammary gland to secrete milk.
Q.32. Which hormones are secreted from the posterior lobe of hypophysis and what are their physiological effects?
Ans. Hormone of Median Lobe of Pituitary Gland
In many vertebrate this lobe secretes Melanocyte Stimulating Hormones (MSH) which controls darkening of skin. In man MSH secretes by anterior lobe with uncertain function.
Q.33. Which hormones are secreted from the posterior lobe of hypophysis and what are their physiological effects?
Ans. Hormone of Posterior Lobe of Pituitary Gland
i. Antidiuretic Hormone – This hormone increases reabsorption of water from kidney hence decrease with output.
ii. Oxytocin – This hormone contracts uterus during child birth and release of milk from mammary gland.
Q.34. What types of abnormalities are produced by hyper secretion and hypo secretion of pituitary gland?
Ans. Abnormalities of Pituitary Gland
i. Gigantism – In this condition person attain enormous height due to over secretion of growth hormone.
ii. Dwarfism – In this condition height of person remain very short due to low secretes of growth hormones.
iii. Acromegaly – It is the enlargement of bones of hands, feet and face. This condition appears due over secretion of growth hormone during adult hood.
Q.35. Where thyroid gland is located? How any types of hormones are secreted by the thyroid gland and what are their metabolic effects.
Ans. This gland is located below the neck. It is the shape of letter “W”. It secretes two hormones.
i. Thyroxin Hormone – It is of two types. Trixiodo Thyronine (T3) and Thyroxin (T4) hormones. It stimulates the metabolism of the body and important for physical and mental development.
ii. Calcitonin – This hormone decrease the level of calcium in blood after depositing excess calcium in bones.
Q.36. What type of pathological conditions appears due to hybo secretion of thyroxin hormone in adult and childrens?
Ans.
i. Goiter – it is abnormal enlargement of thyroid gland due to deficiency of iodine in diet.
ii. Myxedema – In adult hood low secretion of thyroixin causes over weight, sluggish, dry, skin, hair loss, intolerant to cold, confused and depressed individual.
iii. Cretinism – In children low secretion of thyroxin causes stunted growth, mental retardation and coarse facial features.
Q.37. Where parathyroid gland is located and which hormone is secreted from it and what is its significance?
Ans. Parathyroid Gland are four in number and are located behind the thyroid gland. This gland secret one hormone called parathormone. It increases reabsorption of calcium from the kidneys and also induces release of calcium from bones.
Q.38. What is the name of the dual nature gland? Where beta and alpha cells and what are their secretions? How their secretions effect the blood glucose level and metabolism of the body?
Ans. Pancreas acts as both endocrine and exocrine glands. The endocrine portion of the gland is called Islet of Langerhans. It secret two hormones.
i. Insulin – It is secreted from the beta cells of Islet of Langerhans. It decreases blood glucose level after stimulating liver, muscles and adipose tissues. It also promotes synthesis and conversion of glucose unto glycogen.
ii. Glucogen – It is secreted from the alpha cells of the Islet of Langerhans. It is secreted in response of deficiency of glucose. It increases glucose level after converting glycogen into glucose.
Q.39. What is diabetes mellitus? What are its sign and symptoms?
Ans. DIABETES MELLITUS – It is due to the deficiency of insulin hormone. In this there is persistent rise in blood glucose level. In this disease frequent urination, weight loss, formation of ketone bodies and imbalance function of brain are the symptoms.
Q.40. Where adrenal glands are situated and what are their roles in the maintenance of body physiology?
Ans. Adrenal glands are two in number and are located on the top of each kidney. Each adrenal gland has two parts.
(A) Adrenal Cortex – It is regulated by Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH) of the pituitary gland. It three hormones.
(i) Cortisoe – It promotes metabolism of glucose. It also promotes the conversion of protein into glucose.
(ii) Aldosterone – It increases the metabolism of Na+ and Cl- ions by the kidneys.
(iii) Androgen – Secretion of androgen in male causes growth of facial hairs, deepening of voice and increase in muscle. Excessive secretion of androgen in females cause masculinzation and appearance of beard.
(B) Adrenal Medulla – It secretes two hormones.
(i) Adrenaline OR Epinephrine – Adrenaline increases heart beat, blood glucose level, breathing rate and metabolic are
(ii) Nor-Adrenaline OR Epinephrine – It sustain blood pressure.
Q.41. What are hypo and hyper effects of the secretions of adrenal glands?
Ans.
(i) Cushing’s Syndrome – It occurs due to over production of cortisol, characterized by obesity, muscle wasting, hypertension and diabetes.
(ii) Addison’s Disease – It occurs due to deficiency of the hormones of adrenal gland. Deficiency of hormones occur due to destruction of adrenal gland. It is characterized by weakness, weight loss, low blood sugar and reduced blood pressure.
Q.42. Where thymus gland is located and what is the significance of its secretion in immune system?
Ans. Thymus gland is located in the chest behind the sternum. It consists of two lobes. It secretes number of hormones including Thymosin, which stimulates the development and differentiation of T-lymphocytes.
Q.43. What is the function of pineal gland?
Ans. Pineal gland is a cone shaped body in the brain. It secretes melatonin at might. Melatonin helps in the growth and development of gonads.
Q.44. Name the hormones secreted by the ovary and what their physiological roles in the female body?
Ans. Ovary secretes two hormones.
i. Estrogen – it produces female secondary sexual characters.
ii. Progesteron – It helps in the preparation and maintenance of uterus for the development of embryo.
Q.45. What is animal behavior?
Ans. The response of an animal in relation to its internal or external environment is called animal behavior.
Q.46. What is ethology?
Ans. The scientific study of the nature of behavior is called ethology.
Q.47. Into how many types the behavior can be divided?
Ans. Behaviors are identified into two types
(i) Innate Behavior (Intensive Behavior) – Behaviors are automatic preprogrammed and genetically determined which do not involve any learning. Innate behavior can be categorized into following types.
(ii) Learning Behavior – The process that bring about adaptive changes in the behavior of an animal in response to a stimuli. It related to a specific experience in the animals life with that or a similar stimuli.
Q.48. What are Kinases? What type of behavior is showed by the wood lice during hot and humid conditions?
Ans. In this behavior animal shows random movements to a particular stimulates. This movement depends on the intensity of stimulates not the direction. For example wood lice move about quickly in dry condition but slow down and stop in humid areas.
Q.49. What is taxis? What type of behavior is showed by the moth for light?
Ans. In this behavior animal shows directional movement. The movement towards stimulus is positive taxis, while away from the stimulus is negative taxis. for example, Moth flies towards the light.
Q.50. What are reflexes?
Ans. These are short lived, rapid responded mediated by nervous system. For example; Knee jerk, blinking of eye and withdrawal pf hand from hot objects.
Q.51. What is fixed action pattern?
Ans. This behavior is triggered or sign stimulus or releaser. For example; In stickle back fish one male attacks the other made which enters in its territory. It was found that releaser is the red belly of the intruder.
Q.52. What is latent learning? Explain.
Ans. A type of learning which is not associated with a particular stimulus and is not normally rewarded, but is utilized in a different situation at a later time is called latent learning. For example rate can easily find their way in experimental maze by their explaining nature. This habit makes them expert in recognizing their environment. This ability is not immediately rewarded but the knowledge of their barrows and different approaches is useful when a predator approaches them.
Q.53. What is operant condition? Explain.
Ans. Operant Condition – (Trial and error learning)
In this kind of learning and animal learns to associate its behavior to receive and award or punishment. B.F. Skinner kept hungary, pigeons or mice in skimmer box. Inside the box there was a lever which operated a food supply. When the lever was pressed by the animal a sample of food was delivered. After several accidental incidents of pressing the lever the animals learnt to get food.
Q.54. What is biological rhythm?
Ans. Some organisms do some activities at regular internals irrespective to the season or day length. This kind of behavior is called time biology or biological rhythm.
Q.55. How many types of biological rhythm are? What is there basis of classification?
Ans. Depending upon the external or internal regulating factors, the biological rhythm can be differentiated into exogenous or endogenous rhythm. The exogenous rhythms are controlled by external factors such as light and dark. Where as endogenous rhythm controlled by internal factors such as biochemical and physiological changes.
Q.56. Give some examples of biological rhythms.
Some examples of biological rhythm are as follows.
(i) Breeding Season – Some animals have particular breeding seasons because their feeding and rearing is possible in these season.
(ii) Biannual Migration – Salamons and eel fish migrate between sea and rivers more thanonce in their life cycle.
(iii) Animals are active for only part of the 24 hour cycle. For example diurnal, nocturnal and crepuscular animals.

Short Question Answers – Support and Locomotion

Q.1. What is Ecdysis? Ans. The shedding of old exoskeleton periodically and replace it with new one is called Ecdysis or Moulting.
Q.2. Give physiological significance of skeleton?
Ans. FUNCTIONS OF SKELETON
It provides support the body.
It give body to a proper shape.
It protect many organ like brain, spiral cord, heart, lungs etc.
It helps in movement due to the presence of joints.
Long bones are the site of formation of blood cells.
It provides surface for the attachement of muscles.
It stores large amount of calcium.
Q.3. Explain genetical disorder of skeleton?
Ans. GENETICAL DISORDER
Cleft Palate: A condition in which maxilla and palatine bones are fail to fuse. It appears as persistent opening between oral and nasal activities.
Q.4. What is Osteroprosis?
Ans. It is common in women. It is caused by deficiency of estrogen hormone. In this condition bones become porons thin and weak and consequent easily breakable.
Q.5. Differentiate between Skeletal and Smooth muscles?
SKELETAL MUSCLES
They are attached with the skeleton.
They are voluntary in functions.
Eash muscles fiber has light and dark stripes.
These muscles help in locomotion.
SMOOTH MUSCLES
They are found in visceral organs.
They are involuntary in function.
Muscle fiber does not have light and dark stripes.
Each muscle fiber is spindle shaped.
Each muscle fiber has single muscle.
These muscles are for vital activities.
Q.6. How Ca+2 ion help in skeletal muscle contraction?
Ans. As we know that motor nerve carry message for contraction and expansion towards skeletal muscles. When message reaches to muscles fiber, Ca+2 channels open in sarcolema and lot of Ca+2 ions are pumped inside the muscle fibers through their sarcolema. These Ca+2 ions further pumped in myofibrils by sarcoplasmic reticulum. Ca+2 ions bind at troponin present on tropomyosin. In this way Ca+2 – troponin complex is formed due to which tropomyosin changes its place on I-band. Now myosin binding sites are exposed on I-band due to which I-band slides over A-band and an actomyosin complex is formed. Now distance between two Z-bands (sarcomene) decrease and whole fiber becomes short.
Q.7. Where calcium ions move during expansion of muscle fiber? How skeletal muscles expand?
Ans. When message of expansion reaches to muscle fiber, Ca+2 – troponin complex is formed due to which tropomyosin changes its place on I-band. Now myosin binding sites are exposed on I-band due to which I-band slides over A-band and an actomyosin complex is formed. Now distance between two Z-bands (sarcomene) decrease and whole fiber becomes short.
Q.8. Difference between Tetany and Cramps?
Ans.
TETANY: It is a sudden any oluntary contraction of skeletal muscles. It is caused by low level calcium in blood. It excites neurons which cause contraction of muscles. This contraction is constant and called tetanus. Tetany of respiration organs is often fatal.
CRAMPS: It is commonly called muscle pull. It commonly occurs in linters. It is caused by dehydration, electrolyte or a low sugar level in blood.
Q.9. Describe the mechanism on action or shoulder joined.
Ans. MOVEMENT OF SHOULDER JOINT: Shoulder joint is ball socket joint. In this joint the head of humorous articulates with glenoid cavity of scapula this articulation is called gleno humeral joint. This articulation allows the movement of arms in various directions. Many sets of antagonistic muscles are also associated with the shoulder protractor and retractor muscles move the arm in forward and backward direction adductor and abductor allow the arm to move away from the body or forwards the body and rotators help the arm to rotate in all the directions even in a circle.
Q.10. How podia help in locomotion in star fish?
Ans. In star fish locomoiton occurs by means of tube feet. The ampullae of the tube feet contracts and the water of the ampullae forced into the podia in this way suckers of podia attach to the surface the tube feet now pryot forward on their attached suckers and there by pushing the body forwards. The muscles oxpodra now contract and this forces their fluid back into the ampullae and the release their suckers and whole sequence of event repeated.
Q.11. What is the composition of exoskeleton of arthropods?
Ans. In arthropods, the exoskeleton is made up of carbohydrates protein complex called chitin.
Q.12. What are the advantages of exoskeketon of arthropods?
Ans. Exoskeleton of arthropods have many advantages, such as,
1. It provides surface for the attachment of muscles.
2. The formation of joints helps in locomotion.
Q.13. What are the disadvantages of exoskeleton of arthropods?
Ans. Exoskeleton of arthropods have some disadvantages, such as, it restrict the movement when become hard and growth of the body.
Q.14. Where exoskeleton is situated and how it is formed?
Ans. This skeleton is found outside the body. It is hard and non-living. It is secreted from the epidermal cells of the body.
Q.15. What is the biochemical composition of exoskeleton?
Ans. Exoskeletons are made up of different materials, for example, in single diatoms, it is made up of silica, and where as mollusks as exoskeleton of CaCo.
Q.16. Where endoskeleton is formed?
Ans. The endoskeleton is found in inside the body. It is commonly found in vertebrates, but in some invertebrates endoskeleton is also found. For example, in sponges calcarious spicules are found. In vertebrates endoskeleton of bones and sartilage is found.
Q.17. How many bones are found in human body?
Ans. Endoskeleton of human being is composed of 206 bones.
Q.18. In how many parts the human endoskeleton can be divided?
Ans. Human endoskeleton can be divided into axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton.
Q.19. How many bone are present in human skull?
Ans. Skull consists of two parts. Cranium and facial bones. Cranium or Brain Box is made up of Eigth (8) bones where as Facial bone are 14.
Q.20. How many vertebrate are present in the vertebral column and what are their divisions?
Ans. Vertebral Column consists of 33 vertebrate. Seven (7) vertebrate are in neck called Cervical vertebrate. Twelve (12) vertebrate are in thorax called Thoracic vertebrate. Five vertebrate are in back or lumber region called Lumber vertebrate. Five (5) fused vertebrate from Sacrum in sacral region and four fused vertebrate form Coccyx.
Q.21. How many parts of the ribs are there?
Ans. In human there are twelve pairs of ribs. Ten (10) pairs of ribs fuse with sternum called True Ribs. Two (2) pairs of ribs never fuse with sternum and are called Floating Ribs.
Q.22. What is pectoral girdle?
Ans. Pectoral girdle is also called Shoulder Girdle. It consists of scapula and clavicles. Forclimbs are attached with the pectoral girdle.
Q.23. What is pelvic girdle?
Ans. Pelvic girdle is composed two similar halves called Coxa or Innominate bones. Each part is formed by the fusion of three bones i.e. ileum, pubis and ischium. Hind limbs are attached with pelvic girdle.
Q.24. Give names of the bones of the fore limbs and their numbers?
Ans. Each fore limb consists of 30 bones. One (1) Humorous, One (1) Radius and Ulna, Eight (8) Carples in Wrist, Five (5) Metachipals in Palm and Fourtheen (14) Phalanges in Fingers and Thumb.
Q.25. Give names of the bones of the hind limb and their numbers.
Ans. Each hind limb consists of 30 bones, One (1) Femurm Thigh, One (1) Tibia and Fibula in Shin, One (1) Patella as Knee Cap, Seven (7) Tarsals in Ankle, Five (5) Metatarsals in Sole and Fourteen (14) Phalanges in Fingers and Thumb.
Q.26. What is bone?
Ans. The bone is a rigid connective tissue. It is composed of collagen fibers and hardness is due to by calcium phosphate. Bone cells are called Osteocytes which are produced from Osteoblasts.
Q.27. How many parts are there in long bones and where RBC’s are formed?
Ans. Long bones of the body have a compact part and a spongy part. Spongy part has bone marrow where RBC’s are produced.
Q.28. What is cartilage?
Ans. The cartilage is a soft connective tissue. It is composed of elastic collagen fibers. Cartilage forming cells are called chondrocytes. Cartilages are found at the end of long bones, external ear and tip of nose.
Q.29. How many types of cartilage are there?
Ans. There are two main types of cartilage found in the body.
1. Hyalline Cartilage
2. Fibrous Cartilage
Q.30. Where is joint or articulation?
Ans. A point where two or more bones are connected together is called joint or articulation.
Q.31. What is ligament and what is their function?
Ans. The ligaments are connective tissues which binds the two bones.
Q.32. What is synovial fluid and what is their function?
Ans. The synovial fluid is a lubricating fluid filled in moveable joints to reduce friction between two joints.
Q.33. What is disc slip and what are its effects?
Ans. Vertebrate are provided with intervertebral discs which act as shock absorber. These discs are made up of cartilage. When this cartilage ruptures and displaces due to trauma, the condition is called disc slip. Due to these spinal nerves presses causing severs pain.
Q.34. What is spondylosis and to which part of the body it is related?
Ans. The spondylosis is related to neck. In this condition the spaces between the two adjacent vertebrate decrease which presses the spinal nerves, results in severe pain. The pain relived by wearing hard collar.
Q.35. What is arthritis and what are their signs and symptoms?
Ans. In arthritis the joints become swollen and painful. There are several causes of arthritis such as hereditary, viral infection, injury or a ging. In this condition the joint become hard due to the deposition of Ca in the cartilage found in joints. The remedy is the replacement of joints by artificial joints.
Q.36. Give the main characters of cardiac muscles?
Ans. They are found in heart. They are involuntary in action but they contain light and dark bands. The muscle fibers have many nuclei. Each muscle fiber makes a connection with the adjacent muscle fiber.
Q.37. What is I-Band?
Ans. Isotropic Band (I-Band) is made up of actin protein. I-band has myosin binding sites which are connected under the wrapping of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin has another protein called Troponin, which is the binding site for calcium.
Q.38. What is A-Band?
Ans. Anisotropic Band (A-Band) is made up of myosin protein. Myosin is a double helix and at one end two myosin heads are present. The heads of myosin are capable of interacting with myosin sites on I-Band.
Q.39. What is Muscle Fatigue?
Ans. When sufficient O2 is available muscle fibers produce ATP in mitochondria. When O2 supply to the muscle fiber is poor, glycolysis begins. It is a rapid process which bring about the formation of Lactic Acid as a by product. The accumulation of lactic acid cause muscle fatigue

Shorts Question Answers – Homeostasis

Q.1. Why more water is required for the excretion of ammonia. Ans. It is highly soluble in water and rapidly diffuse across the plasma membrane. Ammonia is toxic for the organism. Its toxicity is reduced when diluted with large quantities of water due to this reason more water is required for excretion.

Q.2. Where urea is produces and why ATP is required for the process?
Ans. Urea is produced in the liver. NH3 combines with CO2 during this process ATP is required. Mammals, amphibians, shark and some bony fishes also excreted urea.

Q.3. Why water is not required for the excretion of uric acid?
Ans. It has extremely low solubility in water due to this water is not required for the excretion of uric acid. Formation of uric acid requires ATP.

Q.4. In which form the uric acid is excretion out of the body?
Ans. The suspension of uric acid is discharged in the form of thick paste or solid pellets. Uric acid is excreted by insects reptiles and bird.

Q.5. How much urea is less soluble than ammonia in water?
Ans. Urea is relatively less soluble in water 100,000 times less toxic than NH3.

Q.6. Give the route of excretion from the soft bodied animals and fishes?
Ans. In soft bodied animal ammonia is excreted from the body surface. In fish, most of the ammonia is excreted through gills as ammonium ions.

Q.7. What are the excretory organs of earthworm?
Ans. The excretory organs of earthworm are metanephridia which are arranged segmentally.

Q.8. What is metanephridium?
Ans. Each metanphridiumus coiled tube which is surrounded by capillaries. One end of metanephridium open in coemolic fluid where as other end opens on body surface through nephridiopore. Waste materials along with water are absorbed from the coemolic fluid passes through coiled part reabsorption of water takes place and remaining part is excreted through nephridiopore to outside the body.

Q.9. What is liver?
Ans. Liver is large reddish brown exocrine gland located in abdomen just below the diaphragm. Liver has bladder like gall bladder which stores bile and pour this bile into duodenum by the help of bile duct.

Q.10. What is the role of the liver for the metabolism of carbohydrates?
Ans. Liver maintain the level of glucose in blood. If blood contains excess glucose then glucose is stored in liver in the form of glycogen. If blood contains less glucose then stored glycogen is converted in glucose and release in blood. If glycogen is unavailable then liver converts amino acid or lipids into glucose and release in ton blood. Liver also converts lipids into fats and stores it.

Q.11. What is deamination and in which cycle the ammonia is converted into urea?
Ans. In liver break down of amino acids takes place. First amino group (NH4) is separated from amino acids and this process is called diamination then CO2 reacts with ammonia in ornithine cycle and converted into urea. This urea is released in blood circulation and excreted through kidneys.

Q.12. Describe the detoxification role of liver?
Ans. Liver also neutralizes many toxic substance such as hydrogen peroxide which is produced during metabolism is broken down into H2O and O2 by the help of enzyme catalase.

Q.13. How gall stones are formed?
Ans. Liver synthesizes cholesterol in excess amount forms gall stones in gall bladder.

Q.14. How liver help in the maintenance of body temperature for homeostatis?
Ans. Due to high metabolic are in liver heat is produced which helps in maintaining body temperature.

Q.15. For which vitamins the liver act as a reservoir?

Ans. Liver also stores many vitamins such as A, B and D.

Q.16. What is ultrafiltration and where it occurs?
Ans. During this process when blood passes through glomerulous, its plasma filters and diffuses into Bowman’s capsule. Filtration occurs due to high hydrostatic pressure in glomerulous is called ultrafiltration. This filtrate contains all molecules except plasma, proteins and blood cells.

Q.17. From where the reabsorption of glucose, amino acid, water and salt occur in the nephron?
Ans. When filtrate passes through proximal convoluted tubule, glucose, amino acids, water and salts are reabsorbed in per tubular network.

Q.18. Compare the role of ascending and descending limb of henel?
Ans.
ASCENDING LIMB OF LOOP OF HENLE
In ascending limb of loop of Henle active absorption of sodium and chloride ions takes place. Sodium and chloride ions move out from filtrate into interstitial fluid and then taking up by the blood.
DESCENDING LIMB OF LOOP OF HENLE
When filtrate passes through descending limbs of loop of Henle reabsorption of water and sodium takes place.

Q.19. What is the function of distil convoluted tubule of nephron?
Ans. In distal convoluted tubule concentration of various salts in adjusted under influence of hormones. The filtrate now almost urine and collected in collecting dust.

Q.20. How many types of counter current mechanism are there?
 Ans. There are two counter current system are operating.
1. One of the counter current is termed as counter current multiplier loops of Henle.
2. The other counter current system is consists of those blood vessels which run parallel to loop of Henle and are called Vasa Recta.

Q.21. How counter current multiplier perform its responsibilities?
Ans. In counter current multiplier loops of Henle the filtrate passes through descending limbs of loop of Henle, reabsorption of water takes place from filtrate and it becomes hypertonic then the interstitial fluid. In ascending limb of loop of henle, sodium and chloride ions are actively reabsorbed from the filtrate and it becomes hypotonic. Sodium and chloride ions removed from ascending limbs slowly diffuse bact to descending limbs.

Q.22. What is the role of vasa recta?
Ans. The outer counter current system is consists of those blood vessels which run parallel to loop of Henle and are called Vasa Recta. The blood supply to vasa recta provides oxygen and nourishments to the tissues of medulla it also takes away water absorbed from the filtrate.

Q.23. What are the adaptations of kidneys for the conservation of water?
Ans. Kidneys are adapted for the conservation of water. For this purpose two types of nephrons are found in kidneys. Such as cortical nephrons which have sorter lop of henle where the reabsorption of water is lower and Juxtamedullary nephrons which have longer loop of henle which extend up to medulla. In these nephrons reabsorption of water is higher. If kidney has larger number of Juxtamendullary nephrons there is greater conservation of water.

Q.24. How many types of nephrons are there?
Ans. There are two types of nephrons.
1. Cortical Nephrons: Which have shorter loop of Henle where the reabsorption of water is lower.
2. Juxtamedullary Nephrons: Which have longer loop of Henle which extend up to medulla. In these nephrons reabsorption of water is higher.

Q.25. How ADH increase the reabsorption of water?
Ans. A hormone ADH (Antidiuretic hormone) or vasopressin which increases the permeability of collecting duct in this way reabsorption of water increases.

Q.26. Which hormones are responsible for the reabsorption of sodium ions and calcium ions?
Ans. Another hormone Aldosterone which is secreted from adrenal gland increases the reabsorption of sodium ions Parathormone secreted from parathyroid glands maintains the level of calcium after increasing reabsorption of calcium ions.

Q.27. What is the percentage of infective renal stones and what is their biochemical compositions?
Ans. About 20% of calcium are termed as infective stones. Such calculi consists of combination of calcium, magnesium and ammonium phosphate. Some stones about 5% are formed by uric acid.

Q.28. What is lithotripsy?
Ans. It is the advance method of removing stones from kidneys and urinary bladders. In this method shock waves and ultra sonic waves are used for breaking stones in the body. After being broken small broken fragments of are passed in urine.

Q.29. What is renal failure and what are their major signs and symptoms?
Ans. It is the condition in which kidney are unable to filter blood to remove waste materials. In this way waste materials accumulate in blood, which leads to symptoms such as nausea, vomiting loss of appetite, weakness, breathlessness etc. In severe cases coma and death.

Q.30. What is haemodialysis?
Ans. Haemodialysis means “cleaning the blood”. In this procedure blood is circulated through a machine which contains a fluid dialyzer whose composition is mentioned.

Q.31. How many types of dialysis are there?
Ans. There are two types of dialysis
1. Haemodialysis
2. Peritoneal dialysis

Q.32. How haemodialysis is carried out?
Ans. Dialyzer has two spaces separated by their semipermeable membrane. Blood passes from one side of the membrane and dialyzer on the other side. The wastes and excess water pass from the blood through the membrane into the dialyzer. There after the blood is returned to circulation.

Q.33. What peritoneal dialysis?
Ans. During this method, there is inserted in the peritoneal cavity of abdomen after making an incision. Through this cathoter dialyze is filled in to the peritoneal cavity for several hours. As a consequen waste from the blood vessels lining the peritoneal cavity seep through peritoneal membrane into the cavity and mixes with dialyzer. The fluid is then drain out through the catheter.

Q.34. What is thermoregulation?
Ans. The regulation of body temperature within the stable normal constant limits of the body against the harsh fluctuating circumstances for the maintenance of homeostasis is called Thermoregulation.

Q.35. How many types of thermoregulation?
Ans. Thermoregulation among animals of two types.
1. Behavioral Thermoregulation
2. Physiological Thermoregulaton

Q.36. What is behavioural thermoregulation?
Ans. This regulation involves behavior of the animals in hot and cold weathers for e.g. animal increases or decreases heat loss by changing their locations. They will bask in the sun or in warm rock during winter and find wet cool area in summer.

Q.37. What is physiological thermoregulation?
Ans. Its involves the regulation of body temperature by some biological means. It is exhibited by the change in blood circulation, body metabolism, heat loss by evaporation of sweat.

Q.38. What are Poikilotherms?
Ans. Those animals which change their body temperature with respect to the change of temperature of surroundings. e.g. all invertebrates, fishes, amphibians and reptiles fall into this category.

Q.39. What are Homotherms?
Ans. Those animals which have constant body temperature which is independent to the changes in the temperature of surroundings.

Q.40. What are Ecotherms?
Ans. Those animals which maintain their body temperature by absorbing heat from the environment. E.g. Lizard basking in the sun.

Q.41. What are Endotherms?
Ans. Those animals which maintain their body temperature by generating heat in their bodies are called endotherms.

Q.42. What are Heterotherms?
Ans. Those animals which generate heat in their bodies to keep their body temperature to wider range. E.g. Bats, Humming Birds.

Q.43. How mammals control their body temperature physiological means during cold environment?
Ans. Thermoregulation in cold temperature.
Physiological Mechanism
(a) Non-Shivering Thermogenesis
i. Erection of Hairs: During cold weather hair of bodies becomes erect due the contraction in erector pilli muscles in skin. Vertical hair trap air near to skin which reduces heat loses from skin.
ii. Subcutaneous Fact Acelmulation: Mammals live in colder regions of world have thick layer of adipose tissues under their skin. These adipose tissues work as insulator and reduce head loss.
iii. Reduction in Blood Flow Through Skin: In cold temperature, arteries and veins in skin become narrow due to which blood circulation in skin decreases and heat loss is reduced due to radiation.
(b) Shivering Thermogenesis
In colder weather brain starts involuntary muscle movement called shivering which helps in generating heat to increase the body temperature.

Q.44. How mammals regulate their body temperature by behavioural means during cold environment?
Ans. Thermoregulation in Cold Temperature
Behavioural Mechanism.
In colder weather animals move towards warm places to maintain their body temperature.

Q.45. How mammals control their body temperature by physiological means during hot environment?
Ans. Thermoregulation in Hot Temp
Physiological Mechanism
i. Lowering of Hair: In hot weather animals lower their hair to reduce insulating effect.
ii. Increase in Blood Flow Towards Skin: Arteries and veins of skin become dilate due to which blood circulation increases in skin and heat loss occurs due to radiation.
iii. Sweating: In summer sweet glands secrete sweat, which when evaporates body looses heat.

Q.46. How mammals regulate their body temperature by behavioural means during hot environment?
Ans. Behavioral Mechanims:
Animal during summer move towards colder region to maintain their body temperature.

Q.48. How hypothalamus act as a Thermostate for the body.
Ans. Role of Brain in Temperature Regulation
Hypothalamus is the part of brain which regulates the body temperature. In this way this is called the most at of body. Hypothalamus receives messages from thermo receptor present in the skin. When any change in the temperature is detected by the hypothalamus, instructions are sent to the particular organ to bring the body temperature back to normal. For example in summer body promotes heat loss by evaporation of sweat from skin. But during winter body generates heat by different mechanism.

MCQs – Man and his Environment

1. ________ are the resources that can be replenished by physical and biological means.
  • Renewable
  • Non renewable
  • Both
  • None
2. ________ are those resources which once used on exhausted cannot be reused.
  • Renewable
  • Non-renewable
  • Both
  • None
3. Air, water, soil etc are the examples of ________ resources.
  • Renewable
  • Non-renewable
  • Both
  • None
4. Fossil fuels like coal, oil, natural gas and metals are the examples of ________ resources.
  • Renewable
  • Non-renewable
  • Both
  • None
5. Air consists of ________% nitrogen
  • 21
  • 56
  • 78
  • 79
6. Air consists of ________% oxygen
  • 21
  • 22
  • 25
  • 89
7. Air consists of ________% carbon dioxide
  • 0.3
  • 0.03
  • 0.003
  • 0.0003
8. Total water resource of the world has been estimated about ________ millions cubic km.
  • 1200
  • 1400
  • 1500
  • 1600
9. Out of total water on earth ________% is ocean water.
  • 90
  • 91
  • 92
  • 93
10. ________% water is present in the earth’s crust.
  • 2
  • 4
  • 5
  • 9
11. ________% water is present in the glaciers and polar celcaps.
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
12. ________% water is present in fresh water lakes river and atmosphere.
  • 0.2
  • 0.059
  • 0.052
  • 0.025
13. Rain percolates onto the ground and is called ________
  • Substratum water
  • Level water
  • Ground water
  • All of the above
14. Water that accumulates as the thin film around soil particles is called ________.
  • Soil water
  • Hydroscopic water
  • Both a and b
  • None
15. The grazing lands or pastures occupy nearly ________% of the land in the world.
  • 21
  • 22
  • 23
  • 24
16. Solar energy, wind, water, wave, ocean current, tides, temperature gradients and plant materials are sources of energy.
  • Renewable
  • Non-renewable
  • Both
  • None
17. Coal, petroleum and gas fulfill our daily requirement about ________%
  • 92
  • 93
  • 95
  • 96
18. ________ is derived from the oxidized carbon of plant tissues.
  • Oil
  • Petroleum
  • Coal
  • Natural gas
19. ________ involves splitting of certain heavy elements into lighter ones, resulting into the conversion of small mass of the elements into energy.
  • Nuclear fission
  • Nuclear fusion
  • Condensation
  • None
20. Nuclear fission takes nearly 7 hours to fission 1kg of fuel releasing ________ KJ energy.
  • 72
  • 75
  • 78
  • 79
21. Heat produced by radioactive by radioactive material deep beneath the surface of the earth is called ________.
  • Geothermal energy
  • Solar energy
  • Nuclear energy
  • Electrical energy
22. The Earth receives a maximum of ________ watts/sq.metre when the sun is at the top.
  • 1400
  • 1500
  • 1600
  • 1900
23. Certain kinds of solid waste material such as farm and animal manure, crop residues and sewage however can be converted into fuel called ________.
  • Biogas
  • Coal
  • Natural gas
  • Petroleum
24. The wind waves and ocean thermal gradients are ________ sources of solar energy.
  • Direct
  • Indirect
  • Both
  • None
25. Total energy flow due to tides in shallow seas is about ________ billion KW.
  • 1.1
  • 2.2
  • 3.3
  • 4.4
26. The essential condition for generating hydro electric power is ________.
  • Small volume of water falling great distance
  • Large volume of water falling small distance
  • Both
  • None
27. At present WAPDA is generating ________ megawatt of power in peak periods of Pakistan.
  • 3900
  • 4100
  • 4300
  • 4500
28. It has been estimated that about ________ electricity produced is being wasted through the use of inefficient of modern machine.
  • 25
  • 50
  • 75
  • 100
29. In Pakistan the population is increasing at the rate of ________% per annum.
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4
30. The world population at present is about ________ billion.
  • 5
  • 6
  • 7
  • 8
31. When the amount of solid waste or concentration of gases other than oxygen in air is increased is called ________ pollution.
  • Air
  • Noise
  • Water
  • Land
32. ________ includes large number of things such as simple carbon smoke, road dust etc.
  • Particulate pollutants
  • Smog
  • Simple pollutant
  • All of the above
33. NO2 combine with gaseous hydro carbons to form variety of secondary pollutants called ________.
  • Photochemical smog
  • Photochemical oxidants
  • Both
  • None
34. CO2 allows the sun rays to pass through but prevents the long wave radiations reflected by earth. This phenomenon is called ________.
  • Depletion of ozone layer
  • Green house
  • Global warming
  • None
35. The release of chlorine atoms into the atmosphere breaks down the ozone shield. This phenomenon is called ________.
  • Depletion of ozone layer
  • Green house
  • Global warming
  • None
36. The process of contamination of water is called ________
  • Depletion of ozone layer
  • Green house
  • Water pollution
  • None
37. Radiation, noise pollution are the example of ________ pollution.
  • Air
  • Material
  • Non-material
  • Land
38. Noise levels are measure in ________.
  • Meter
  • Dyne
  • Decibels
  • Kilo watt hour
39. Influenza, aids, chicken pox etc are the example of ________ diseases.
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Protozoal
  • Nutritional
  • Viral
40. Ring worm, athelete’s foot are the example of ________ diseases.
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Protozoal
  • Nutritional
  • Viral
41. Malaria, African sleeping sickness are the example of ________ diseases.
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Protozoal
  • Nutritional
  • Viral
42. Tuberclosis, typhoid, pneumonia and cholera are the example of ________ diseases.
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Protozoal
  • Nutritional
  • Viral
43. Scurvy is caused by deficiency of vitamin ________
  • A
  • B
  • C
  • D
44. Cholera is caused by ________.
  • Tinea corporis
  • Vibrio cholera
  • Linea versicolor
  • None
45. Deficiency of vitamin K causes ________.
  • Anemia
  • Prolong bleeding
  • Tooth decay
  • Goiter
46. Deficiency of Vitamin E causes ________.
  • Anemia
  • Prolong bleeding
  • Tooth decay
  • Goiter
47. Deficiency of Iodine causes ________
  • Anemia
  • Prolong bleeding
  • Tooth decay
  • Goiter
48. Deficiency of Floride causes ________
  • Anemia
  • Prolong bleeding
  • Tooth decay
  • Goiter
49. Degeneration of neurons of brain is called ________ disease.
  • Parkinson’s
  • Alzheimer’s
  • Epilepsy
  • All of the above
50. Anemia, prolong bleeding, tooth decay and goites are the example of ________ diseases.
  • Bacterial
  • Fungal
  • Protozoal
  • Nutritional
  • Viral